CARSEP XII
Question 395
0
A 67-year-old female patient presents with full-thickness rectal prolapse. Other than this condition, she is healthy. Dynamic pelvic magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a 4-cm rectocele with incomplete evacuation of contrast and the known full-thickness rectal prolapse. What is the best surgical option for her?
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Citation
"Question 395." CARSEP XII, ASCRS U, www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/CARSEP XII/3094395/all/Pelvic_Floor. Accessed 20 April 2026.
Question 395. CARSEP XII. https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/CARSEP XII/3094395/all/Pelvic_Floor. Accessed April 20, 2026.
Question 395. In CARSEP XII https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/CARSEP XII/3094395/all/Pelvic_Floor
Question 395 [Internet]. In: CARSEP XII. [cited 2026 April 20]. Available from: https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/CARSEP XII/3094395/all/Pelvic_Floor.
* Article titles in AMA citation format should be in sentence-case
TY - ELEC
T1 - Question 395
ID - 3094395
BT - CARSEP XII
UR - https://www.ascrsu.com/ascrs/view/CARSEP XII/3094395/all/Pelvic_Floor
DB - ASCRS U
DP - Unbound Medicine
ER -
